Was Mary a Virgin?
Recently, I was asked if I believed Mary, the mother of Jesus, was a virgin. My response was, "Yes!" While I realize the Bible contains allegory and metaphor, in this case, this is not one of them.
From the beginning, the Christian Church has accepted Mary's viginity as historical fact. Even today. he Eastern Orthodox Church, the Roman Catholic Church, most traditonal Protestant groups believe Jesus Christ was conceived in Mary's womb by the influence of the Holy Spirit and not a man.
Why? Because the authors of scripture stated it Mary was a Virgin:
- The Apostle Luke records Mary's own words, "How can this be, since I am a virgin?"
Note: The Greek words used for virgin, anēr, ou, and ginōskō translate to: a betrothed person who has not had sexual intercourse.
- Isaiah 7:14; Matthew 1:23; Luke 1:27, all refer to Mary as a virgin.
Furthermore, Matthew 1:25 says, "He had no relations with her until she bore a son, and he named him Jesus." He is Joseph and her is Mary. Restated, Joseph, did not have sexual relations with Mary, until she bore a son and mamed him Jesus."
The meaning of scripture is crystal clear. Joseph and Mary did not have sexual relations until after Jesus was born.
What about the charge that the early Church knew Mary was not a virgin but developed it over time?
In addition to the ancient Biblical manuscripts, an analysis of historical Church documents reveal the following:
1. According to the Protoevangelium of James, written around 120 AD, Joseph "wept bitterly" and when he discovered Mary was pregnant and charged her with infidelity. By law, Joseph was required to reported her condition to the temple authorities, but when he did, they thought the couple had married in secret and even accused Joseph of lying and defiling Mary's purity.
2. Tertullian, a Church Partriarch wrote 213 AD, “And indeed it was a virgin, about to marry once for all after her delivery, who gave birth to Christ, in order that each title of sanctity might be fulfilled in Christ's parentage, by means of a mother who was both virgin, and wife of one husband.”
3. John Chrysostom, in Homily 5 on on Matthew, (370 AD) informs us, "before the birth the Virgin was wholly untouched by man."
4. The Creed of Epiphanius states Jesus "was conceived perfectly through the Holy Ghost of the holy ever-virgin Mary..."
5. Jerome, arguing against Helvidius, wrote, "I must call upon the Holy Spirit to express His meaning by my mouth and defend the virginity of the Blessed Mary."
Additionally, Church patriarchs considered the contrary premise that Mary was not a virgin to be madness and heresy:
•"madness and blasphemy" by Gennadius (De dogm. eccl., lxix),
•"madness" by Origen (in Luc., h, vii),
•"sacrilege" by St. Ambrose (De instit. virg., V, xxxv),
•"impiety and smacking of atheism" by Philostorgius (VI, 2),
•"perfidy" by St. Bede (hom. v, and xxii),
•"full of blasphemies" by the author of Prædestin. (i, 84),
•"perfidy of the Jews" by Pope Siricius (ep. ix, 3),
•"heresy" by St. Augustine (De Hær. h., lvi).
So, despite the assertion of some the the belief in Mary's virginity developed over time has no basis in reality. The Early Church certainly believed Mary was a virgin from the beginning.
But, what about the charge by Richard Dawkins and others that English Bibles have mistranslated "young woman" into virgin? Is that true?
Consider the text from Matthew which is a quote from Isaiah 7:14:
"BEHOLD, THE VIRGIN SHALL BE WITH CHILD AND SHALL BEAR A SON, AND THEY SHALL CALL HIS NAME IMMANUEL," which translated means, "GOD WITH US."
The Hebrew word Isaiah used for the word "virgin" is almah which some argue means "young woman.” The agument Dawkins and others assert rests solely on another word, bethulah which they claim claim would have been used for virgin instead of almah if the author actually meant "virgin" and not "young woman."
However, they haven't done their homework. Consider the usage of the word from a
1.Genesis 24:43 uses the word almah to refer to Rebekah, who would become the Isaac's wife. However, in verse 16, she is referrred to as bethulah, a virgin.
2.In Exodus 2:8, almah is used in reference to Miriam, Moses's older sister, but still a very young girl who is certainly a virgin.
3. Song of Solomon 6:8 contrasts queens, concubines and maidens (almah), indicating these particular maidens have not been with men.
Thus, while it's true almah can simply mean "young woman", it can ALSO mean "young virgin woman" depending on the context.
Moreover, the Hebrew word elem is the masculine form of almah. For example, in 1 Samuel 17:56 it is used to refer to David, the youth who had just killed Goliath. When you consider the strong taboos against pre-marital sex in the Hebrew community, David was certainly a teen aged virgin.
Therefore, the Hebrew word elem irefers to a young man who does not yet have a woman (wife) and almah is a young woman who does not yet have a man (husband). Both are virgins in the classical meaning of the word.
Old Testament scholar and Hebrew instructor R. Laird Harris, in the Theological Wordbook of the Old Testament, wrote: "There is no instance where it can be proved that alma designates a young woman who is not a virgin.”
In fact, Martin Luther argued almah is more appropriate in the context of Isaiah than bethulah:
"...almah is even more appropriate here than bethulah. It is also more precise to say, "Behold, a maiden is with child," than to say, "A virgin is with child." For "virgin" is an all-embracing term which might also be applied to a woman of fifty or sixty who is no longer capable of childbearing. But "maiden" denotes specifically a young woman, nubile, capable of childbearing, but still a virgin; it includes not only the virginity, but also the youthfulness and the potential for childbearing."
The evidence from the Bible, from Chuch history and Jewish culture is overwhelming. Almah means "young female virgin of marriageable age" and, hence, Mary was indeed a vigin. Reason demands it.
Why is it important that Mary was a virgin?
Because Jesus was born without a sin nature. Otherwise, he would not have qualified as the perfect sacrifice and humanity would still be separated from God without hope of reconciliation.
Why didn't Jesus inherit sin from Mary?
Because sin is inherited from fathers, not mothers. The virgin birth circumvented the transmission of the sin nature and allowed the eternal God to become a perfect man.
What about the curse God made that no ancestor of Jehoiakim (David's ancestor) would rule on David's throne? Doesn't the Bible indicate Jesus assumes David's throne and is an ancestor of David?
If Joseph had been Jesus’ father, he would have been disqualified from assuming David’s throne. However, since he was not and Mary also descended from David through Nathan, another son of David, Jesus was a legitimate heir. Nathan's lineage was not cursed.